【精校版】广西北部湾经济区2022年中考英语试题Word版含答案

2020年广西北部湾经济区初中学业水平考试

英语

（考试时间120分钟，满分120分）

注意事项：

1．本试卷分试题卷和答题卡两部分，答案一律填写在答题卡上，在试题卷上作答无效

．．．．．．．．．。

2．答题前，请认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项

．．．．．．．．．．．。

3．考试结束后，将本试题卷和答题卡

．．．．．．．．一并交回。

第I卷（共90分）

一、听力测试（共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）

（一）听句子，选图片。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

你将听到五个句子，请在下列六幅图中，选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每个句子读一遍。

1. ________

2. ________

3. ________

4. ________

5. ________

（二）听句子，选答语。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

你将听到五个句子，请根据句子内容，选择恰当的答语，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每个句子读两遍。

6. A. Hello! B. Thank you! C. Come on!

7. A. Good luck! B. Well done! C. No, it isn’t.

8. A. I think so. B. No problem. C. What a pity!

9. A. Nice idea! B. That’s OK. C. Good night.

10. A. Never mind. B. The same to you. C. Yes, I’d love to.

（三）听对话，选择最佳答案。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）

你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。每段对话读两遍。

请听第一段对话，回答第11—13小题。

11. Where is Anna from?

A. From China.

B. From Canada.

C. From England.

12. What does Miss Li teach?

A. English.

B. Maths.

C. Chinese.

13. What class is Mike in?

A. In Class Five.

B. In Class Six.

C. In Class Seven.

请听第二段对话，回答第14—16小题。

14. How does Lucy feel about cartoon stories?

A. Interesting.

B. Exciting.

C. Boring.

15. Which is Nick’s favourite cartoon story?

A. Spiderman.

B. Lion King.

C. Toy Story.

16. Where are the two speakers?

A. In the classroom.

B. At home.

C. In the office.

请听第三段对话，回答第17—20小题。

17. What was Helen afraid of when she was young?

A. Travelling.

B. Competitions.

C. Animals.

18. Why did Helen refuse the neighbours’ advice?

A. Because she thought she was too young.

B. Because she didn’t believe her neigh bours.

C. Beca use she didn’t think she was good enough.

19. Who changed Helen at last?

A. Her sister.

B. Her parents.

C. Her neighbours.

20. Where could people enjoy Helen’s paintings later?

A. On the wall.

B. On the TV program.

C. In the newspaper.

（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。短文读两遍。

21. How often does Jack go to the City Library?

A. Once a week.

B. Twice a week.

C. Three times a week.

22. When is Jack going to do his homework?

A. On Saturday morning.

B. On Saturday afternoon.

C. On Sunday morning.

23. What is Tom going to the City Children’s Center for?

A. For the coming book show.

B. For the coming English play.

C. For the coming football match.

24. What are Kate and Cindy going to do on Saturday evening?

A. To buy clothes.

B. To watch a play.

C. To do homework.

25. Who is going to have a dance lesson on Sunday morning?

A. Cindy.

B. Kate.

C. Jack.

（五）听短文，填信息。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读两遍。

二、单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）

从下列每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。

31. —Hello, may I speak to Mr Jackson?

—_______

A. Enjoy yourself.

B. Goodbye.

C. Hang on, please.

D. Here you are.

32. —Which fruit do you like?

—I like _______.

A. stamps

B. apples

C. eggs

D. bags

33. My cousin was born in Shenzhen, a city _______ the south of China.

A. in

B. on

C. at

D. to

34. Look! The Whites are _______ for a big family dinner in the kitchen.

A. looking

B. asking

C. preparing

D. searching

35. It’s a good idea to have some chocolate when you are _______.

A. noisy

B. pretty

C. lively

D. hungry

36. The scientist _______ works hard for his country. He sets a good example for us.

A. never

B. hardly

C. always

D. seldom

37. —_______ is the head teacher going to make a speech?

—For one hour and a half.

A. When

B. Where

C. How long

D. How soon

38. —Dad, I want to watch TV. Could I _______?

—Of course.

A. put it on

B. turn it on

C. take it off

D. turn it off

39. —Is that woman in the lab Ms Jones?

—No. It _______ be her. She has gone to the museum.

A. can’t

B. can

C. mustn’t

D. must

40. —Have you heard the news about the 2020 Olympic Games?

—Yes. Maybe it _______ next year if everything goes well.

A. be held

B. was held

C. is held

D. will be held

三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）

阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。

A blind boy sat on the steps of a building with a hat by his feet. He held up a sign which said, “I am blind. Please help me.” People went past, but there were few 41 in his hat.

A man met the boy by chance. He took some coins from his pocket and dropped them into the hat. He then took the sign, turned it around, and 42 something on it. He put the sign back

43 everyone who walked by could see the new words.

Soon the hat began to 44 . More and more people gave money to the blind boy. That afternoon the

man came to see how things were. The boy knew from his footsteps and asked, “Were you the one who 45 my sign this morning? What did yo u do?”

The man said, “I only told people the46 . I said the same thing as you said, but in a

47 way. I wrote, ‘Today is a beautiful day, but I cannot see it.’”

Both signs told people that the boy was blind. But the first sign 48 said the boy was blind. The second one told people that they were so 49 to see the beautiful day. Then they felt sorry for the poor boy and cared about him 50 .

This story tells us: Be thankful for what we have and be kind to those who need help.

41. A. candies B. drinks C. coins D. clothes

42. A. saw B. wrote C. drew D. noticed

43. A. or B. but C. so that D. because

44. A. fill up B. look up C. jump up D. get up

45. A. cut B. stole C. cleaned D. moved

46. A. truth B. story C. name D. news

47. A. basic B. brave C. different D. strange

48. A. loudly B. simply C. probably D. seriously

49. A. happy B. poor C. sorry D. lucky

50. A. closer B. farther C. more D. less

四、阅读理解（共20小题，51—55每小题1分，56—70每小题2分，共35分）

A

Mr Hill opened a new fish store in North Street. On a sunny afternoon David went into the store. Mr Hill was happy to meet him.

David picked up a fish, and after looking it over, he held it up to his nose and smelled.

“Hey!” cried Mr Hill, “Why do you smell that fish? Do you think it has gone bad?”

“I didn’t smell it,” answered David.

“Then what were you doing with your face so close to the fish?” asked Mr Hill.

“I wasn’t smelling the fish. I was only talking to it,” answered David.

“Talking to it?” said Mr Hill, “Why, what on earth did you say to it?”

“I asked him if there was any news from the sea. That’s all.”

“Well, what did the fish say?” asked Mr Hill.

“He said he didn’t know the latest news, because he was away from the sea for over two weeks.”

根据短文内容，判断下列句子正误，正确的在答题卡上将“T”涂黑，错误的在答题卡上将“F”涂黑。

51. The story happened on a sunny morning.

52. David went into the store and chose a fish carefully.

53. Mr Hill was happy to see David smell the fish.

54. In fact, David didn’t talk to the fish while smelling it.

55. David’s last sentence means the fish was not fresh.

B

During the outbreak of COVID-19(新冠肺炎爆发), new technology plays an important role in guarding people’s lives.

Inventors in Israel have developed a special mask(口罩). It lets customers eat food without taking it off in restaurants. They say it can make a visit to a restaurant less risky.

New technology from MIT(麻省理工学院), the USA, shows that drones(无人机) are controlled just by hand and arm gestures, a kind of body language. This

makes drone users safer.

One local park in Singapore is trying a new way to get its visitors to stay

away from each other. Spot, a yellow and black robot dog, goes around the

park. It plays a video and warns visitors not to get too close to each other. And it also helps count the visitors in the park with its camera.

Drones are also put to use in China. The technology helps look carefully through large crowds and see if someone is in need of medical attention. In Wuhan,

self-driving robots are used to bring things to medical workers. These robots

look like small cars. They don’t travel too long, but protect medical workers and postmen.

根据表格内容，选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。

56. People can eat food without taking off the special masks in .

A. China

B. the USA

C. Israel

D. Singapore

57. According to the new technology, is used to control drones.

A. a video

B. a small car

C. a camera

D. body language

58. In Singapore, warns visitors not to get too close to each other.

A. a drone

B. a robot dog

C. a special mask

D. a self-driving robot

59. Drones are used to in China.

A. find out someone in need of medical attention

B. play a video and take photos around the park

C. help to protect medical workers and postmen

D. help customers in restaurants buy special masks

60. In the passage, countries use new technology during the outbreak of COVID-19.

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. five

C

①When someone says you’re humorous, it means you are given a great gift—a sense of humor. It is generally considered the most valuable personality(个性). A person without humor is just like a spring without flowers, or like a dish without salt. In a way, your personality lies in your sense of humor.

②Humor answers your question and makes you think outside the box. One day, a young painter went to visit the famous German painter Adolpyh Menzel and said to him, “I can’t understand why I only spend one day on a painting but have to wait for one year to sell it out?” Menzel said, “My dear, please try to turn upside down your mind. If you spend one year on it, you can sell it in a da y.” With these humorous words, your worries may go away like smoke, and you could be full of energy once again.

③Humor can help you when you are under provocation. Sometimes, people make trouble on purpose. One day the famous German poet Goethe met a critic(批评家) in a small road. The critic said to Goethe, “You know, I’ve never given a way to a stupid man.” Goethe answered, “But I am the opposite of you.” Then he moved on his side and let the critic pass by. As you see, humor gives a lesson to those who want to laugh at others.

④People with a good sense of humor may become wise and creative. People with a good sense of humor look happier and healthier. A sense of humor is really one of the keys to happiness. It gives hope and pleasure to life to make it worth living.

根据短文内容，选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。

61. According to Paragraph①, humor is __________.

A. difficult

B. relaxing

C. important

D. expensive

62. What does the underlined word “provocation” in Paragraph③mean in Chinese?

A. 挑衅

B. 感化

C. 怂恿

D. 教训

63. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. Humor cannot cheer you up easily.

B. Humor helps you think in the same way.

C. Humor guides you to happiness and health.

D. Humor gives a lesson to those who can’t help laughing.

64. Which picture shows the structure(结构) of the passage?

A B C D

65. What is the best title of the passage?

A. The Pleasure of Life

B. The Value of Humor

C. The Stories of Happiness

D. The Stories of Humorous People

D

If you’ve ever taken a bus, you’ve pro bably found someone sleeping in the seat near you. Maybe this even happens to you. You might think you need more coffee, but it won’t help much.

The natural vibration(振动) of buses and subways makes us feel sleepy, according to a new story in Science Alert.

Why? It’s all about the information going to your brain. On a bus, your senses give you continuous(持续的) and repeating information. For example, the air conditioner and engine(引擎) create continuous white noise. At the same time, you’re sitting still and the things around you don’t change. The vibrations of the engine are also continuous. Your brain has almost no new information to deal with.

The repeating information will make your brain enter a low-energy state. The fact that you fall asleep quickly when closing your eyes on a bus is because your brain gets used to all of it.

“When you’re tired, it doesn’t take much to start nodding off. But we’ve found that as you drive, the

gentle vibrations made by car seats can make you sleepy,” said Stephen Robins on, a researcher from the RMIT University in Melbourne, Australia.

Robinson’s team invited 15 volunteers to do a test. They were required to sit in a driving machine. And the researchers kept watching their HRV(心率变异度)—a well-known indicator(标志) of sleepiness. Over the course of two 60-minute periods, volunteers were tested once with vibrations and once without. In the period with vibrations, their HRVs were much lower compared with the period without vibrations. During 15 minutes, volunteers showed signs of sleepiness. During 30 minutes, that sleepiness was very easy to be noticed, increasing up until the end of the test.

This line of research can offer help in the development of the car industry. Robinson believed the research could be helpful for improvi ng road safety. “We hope that future car seats can be built to fight against vibration and to make the sleepiness weaker,” he said.

根据短文内容，选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。

66. Which is NOT the continuous information on a bus according to Paragraph 3?

A. The white noise of the engine.

B. The changing things around you.

C. The vibrations of the engine.

D. The white noise of the air conditioner.

67. If you don’t want to sleep on a bus, what should you do?

A. Stand up and move your body.

B. Take more coffee with you.

C. Stop talking and keep silent.

D. Listen to the same song.

68. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 4 refer to(指的是) ?

A. A low-energy state.

B. The noisy environment.

C. The repeating information.

D. Someone sleeping in the seat.

69. What can we learn from the test?

A. With vibrations, the volunteers’ HRVs increased up.

B. The volunteers’ HRVs didn’t change during the whole test.

C. The volunteers with low HRVs showed signs of sleepiness.

D. The researchers got the same result after the test with two periods.

70. What’s the main idea of the passage?

A. It shows the way people usually sit on the bus.

B. It describes a scientific test by Robinson’s team.

C. It suggests improving road safety to car industry.

D. It explains what caus es people’s sleepiness on buses.

五、情景交际（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。

A: I’m very glad to be your guide these days. Are you satisfied with my service?

B: 71 I had a great time here.

A: Nice to hear that. What do you think of the people here?

B: 72 The drivers will stop the cars and wait when people are crossing the road.

A: Yes, we follow the traffic rules well. What about the city?

B: Oh, it’s beautiful and clean. 73 That’s great!

A: Thanks a lot. Is there anything else I can do for you?

B: Well, I need some special local food for my family. 74

A: There is a supermarket over there, next to the flower shop.

B: 75 Thank you very much!

A: My pleasure. Welcome to our city again!

第II卷（共30分）

六、综合填空（共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）

（一）单词拼写（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

根据括号内所给的中文提示，正确拼写单词，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。

76. Let this _________ (鸟) fly in the sky freely.

77. Shall we go somewhere _________ (凉爽的) in the summer holiday?

78. My _________ (梦想) is to be a doctor like Zhong Nanshan in the future.

79. Would you please _________ (纠正) my pronunciation when it is wrong?

80. The radio says the temperature will remain _________ (在……之间) 25℃ and 30℃ all week.

（二）词形变换（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）

根据句意，用括号中所给单词的正确形式填空，并将答案填写在答题卡对应的横线上。

81. His hometown is famous for tea, and ________ (my) is famous for silk.

82. Mount Qomolangma is the _________ (high) mountain in the world.

83. The international train goes across many _________ (Europe) countries.

84. China has _________ (spread) its traditional culture to the world since a long time ago.

85. Both Tom and Jerry made a _________ (decide) about helping each other from then on.

（三）选词填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）

根据短文内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词填空，并将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每个单词只能用一次，每空一词。

劳动创造美好生活。亲爱的同学，今天你劳动了吗？请你以“Learn to do housework” 为题，根据表格信息，用英语写一篇小短文向学校英文校刊的Listen to me专栏投稿。

写作要点：

写作要求：

1. 内容必须包含表格中的所有信息；

2. 结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯；

3. 使用正确和较丰富的词汇和语法结构，书写规范；

4. 文中不得透露个人信息，否则不予评分；

5. 词数80左右（短文首句已给出，不计入总词数）。

Learn to do housework

Doing housework is good for us._________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ 2020年广西北部湾经济区初中学业水平考试

英语参考答案

一、听力测试（每小题1分，共30分）

（一）1—5 C A D B F

（二）6—10 B C A B C

（三）11—13 B C B 14—16 A C B 17—20 B C B C

（四）21—25 A C C B A

（五）26. autumn 27. third/3rd 28. instruments 29. successfully 30. lost 二、单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）

31—35 C B A C D 36—40 C C B A D

三、完形填空（每小题1分，共10分）

41—45 C B C A D 46—50 A C B D C

四、阅读理解（51—55每小题1分，56—70每小题2分，共35分）

51—55 F T F T T 56—60 C D B A C

61—65 C A C D B 66—70 B A C C D

五、情景交际（每小题1分，共5分）

71—75 C D E A B

六、综合填空（每小题1分，共20分）

76. bird 77. cool 78. dream 79. correct 80. between

81. mine 82. highest 83. European 84. spread 85. decision

86. email 87. popular 88. their 89. anywhere 90. lasts

91. ride 92. little 93. until 94. plants 95. greener

七、书面表达（10分）

One possible version:

Learn to do housework

Doing housework is good for us. First, it helps us learn and improve life skills. Second, we can help our parents by doing some housework. So it’s necessary and important.

Here are some kinds of housework we can do in our daily life, such as sweeping the floor, making the bed and cooking some meals. To keep doing housework, we should love it at first. Then we need to get into the habit of doing housework. It’s a good idea to make a plan about doing housework. As a result, we can do it actively. Remember this: Don’t be lazy. Just do a little housework every day.

We can’t hope for rapid change, but let’s take these simple steps from today.

评分标准

一、听力测试（26—30小题）、综合填空（76—95小题）

按参考答案评分，每小题单词拼写完全正确评1分，形式不对（含大小写错误）不予评分，不设小数点以下分值。

二、书面表达

1．本题满分为10分，不设小数点以下分值。按五个档次评分（见下表）。

2．本题具有一定的开放性，考生应根据写作要点和写作要求完成写作任务。

3．评分时，先根据考生的书面表达内容及语言表达情况，初步确定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后评分。相同的错误不重复计算；单词拼写错误四个以上扣0.5分，全文最多扣2分；字数少于60词扣1分。

4．文中不得透露个人信息，否则不予评分。

五级写作评分标准

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